said by PolarBear03:Contract law in the US states that any contract that violates a law is void. Thus, if the FCC makes a law that makes exclusivity illegal, then IMHO the exclusivity contracts should be void.
Example: Walgreens has a contract with Pfizer to buy X bottles of Viagra a month for $xx.xx. FDA does some research, and rules Viagra is unsafe, and thus illegal to sell or distribute. Does this mean Pfizer gets to keep selling Viagra to Walgreens and Walgreens gets to keep selling it to horny ol' Mr. Jones, just because they have a contract? Hell no.
If a contract contains an illegal act, it is void. Remember that when you hire a contract killer.
The cable co's are just bitching because they'll actually have to COMPETE for their business, instead of having it handed to them. Somebody call a whaaaaambulance.
If the contract is deemed "unconscionable", it doesn't have to be executed either. (The U.S. Supreme Court’s “shock the conscience test” (Rochin v. California, 342 U.S. 165, 72 S. Ct. 205, 96 L. Ed. 183 (1952)).
